Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq temporarily lost portions of north-west of his kingdom to Mongols. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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2 only. Statement:1 The first Mongol invasion of India happened during the reign of Behram Shah in 1241 AD. Hence statement 1 is not correct. Statement: 2 During the reign of Alauddin Khilji, Mongols invaded India and put a siege around Delhi in 1303. So, it is correct. Statement: 3 After 1307 AD, the Mongol threat suddenly receded; and only on one occasion subsequently does it appear to have attained to the same proportions. Early in the reign of Muhammad Tughluq, the Chaghatai Khan Tarmashirin led an incursion in which the Mongol forces once again advanced to the Jumna but retired without actually entering the capital when he was paid a ransom. Thereafter, India was free of major inroads from this quarter for another sixty years or more, until the invasion of Delhi by Timur in 1398. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq temporarily lost portions of north-west of his kingdom to Mongols. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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